1996 State Competition FFA Agricultural Mechanics Contest University of Missouri 100 Points MISSOURI AGRICULTURAL MECHANICS CONTEST Written Examination You will have 60 minutes to complete this examination. Answer the questions by selecting the best answer for each question. Mark your answer on the quick-scan sheet provided. Repair & Maintenance 1. When drilling a hole in mild steel, a pilot hole should be drilled when the desired hole is larger than: A. 2 1/8 inch B. I inch C. 3/4 inch D. 3/8 inch 2. When tapping threads, the procedure known as "breaking the chip" is accomplished by: A. Using a lot of oil B. Gently tapping the tap with a hammer C. Turning the tap forward ½ turn and then backward 1/4 turn D. Turning the tap forward 3-4 turns and then backward 1 turn 3. When fastening two pieces of metal, each 1/8 inch thick, with a rivet of a diameter of 1/8 inch, the length of the rivet should be: A. 1/4 inch B. 5/16 inch C. 3/8 inch D. 9/16 inch 4. Which riveting method is best used in a "blind" hole situation (you cannot get to the back side to hammer the rivet)? A. Steel rivet B. Pop rivet C. Copper rivet D. None of the above 5. When fastening metals with solder, melting flux to the metal serves to: A. Strengthen the metal B. Act as an agent to help solder spread over the metal C. Remove tarnish and corrosion D. Both B and C 6. NPT threads differ from NC threads in that: A. NPT threads are tapered by NC threads are not B. Oil is needed to cut NPT threads but not NC threads C. NPT threads are cut with a die and NC athreads are not D. Both B and C are correct 7. Which of the following is not a common type of socket? A. 6 point regular B. 10 point regular C. 6 point deep well D. 12 point regular 8. Before sharpening a drill bit you realize that your grinding wheel is glazed and untrue. Which tool should you select to recondition it? A. Another grinder B. Wheel dresser C. Rat tailed file D. This is impossible to recondition. Throw the stone away and purchase a new one. 9. Which of the following bolts should be used to fasten wood to a steel wagon frame? A. Carriage bolt B. Stove bolt C. Machine bolt D. None of the above 10. The cold chisel should be sharpened to a: A. 45 degree angle B. 60 degree angle C. 135 degree angle D. 12 degree angle 11. When sharpening the cold chisel a purplish color appears on the part you are sharpening. This is an indication that? A. You have destroyed the temper of the cold chisel B. The metal has become more brittle C. The carbon content of the cold chisel has increased substantially D. The carbon content of the cold chisel has decreased substantially 12. Which of the following hammers should not be used when using a cold chisel? A. Ball peen hammer B. Curved claw hammer C. Blacksmith hammer D. Cross peen hammer 13. A grinding wheel needs to be replaced when: A. Worn to ½ the original diameter B. Worn to 3/4 the original diameter C. Worn to 1/4 the original diameter D. Worn down to the metal washer 14. The stamp on a 10" replacement grinding wheel indicates that the maximum rim speed is 4200 feet per minute. The grinder is rated at 1725 rpm. What is the rim speed and is it safe to operate this wheel on this grinder? A. 4513 ft/min., no B. 54165 ft/min, no C. 4200 ft/min, yes D. 1438 ft/min., yes 15. Which is the proper tool to use when marking a hold to drill in metal? A. Solid punch B. Prick punch C. Center punch D. Pin punch 16. A common paint failure noted on metal is "fish eye". This is a result of: A. Dirt or old paint on the surface of the metal B. Excessive moisture in the paint C. Metal is not primed properly D. Too much paint applied in one application Electric Motors 17. Squirrel cage is a term used to describe: A. The shaft B. The frame C. The windings D. The rotor 18. Current will flow from the transformer secondary coils as the direct result of: A. Rectification B. Induced current C. Generation of current D. None of the above 19. Three-phase current usually has: A. 2 hot wires and one neutral B. 4 hot wires and one neutral C. 3 hot wires and one neutral D. 4 hot wires and two neutrals 20. If the 60 hz ac motor has 15 pairs of poles, the armature will turn at: A. 120 rpm B. 240 rpm C. 360 rpm D. None of the above 21. A non-typical service factor for an electric motor is: A. 1.15 B. 1.20 C. 1.35 D. 1.40 E. 1.85 22. A one-half hp electric moto with a service factor of 1.40 could be expected to produce: A. .90 hp B. .30 hp C. 70 hp D. 1.40 hp 23. Insulation classes for electric motors are designated by: A. Letters B. Numbers C. Letters and numbers in combination D. None of the above 24. Motors are cooled by: A. Natural convection currents B. Radiation through fins and the case C. Forced air movement with fans D. All of the above 25. Sleeve bearings for electric motors are: A. More expensive than anti-friction bearings B. Less expensive than anti-friction for replacement C. Sealed bearings D. Usually made of stainless steel 26. Anti-friction bearings for electric motors can be: A. Ball B. Roller C. Needle D. All of the above 27. When removing the end bell from the motor shaft, the shaft should be cleaned with ____________ to help prevent ruining the seal or bearing. A. A mill file B. Emery paper C. Sandpaper D. Both A and B 28. If the electric motor nameplate states a 50 degree Celsius temperature rise with a continuous time rating, you can expect the electric motor to operate normally when it is: A. 50 degrees Celsius B. 90 degrees Celsius C. 10 degrees Celsius D. All of the above 29. The torque that usually determines the rating and size of an electric motor is the ________ torque. A. Full-load B. Breakdown C. Pull-up D. Locked rotor 30. The dual-voltage capacitor-start motor operating on 230 volts has: A. All running and starting windings in parallel B. Starting windings in series and running windings in parallel with one starting C. Running windings in series and starting windings in parallel with one running D. All starting and running windings in series 31. If an induction-run electric motor has a burned-out starting winding, it can be: A. Started by turning the rotor by hand B. Started on the running windings without rotational help C. It will be impossible to start it unless you use an ohmmeter D. All of the above 32. Which AC electric motor has a squirrel cage rotor but does not have a special starting circuit? A. Split phase-start B. Three-phase C. Capacitor-start D. Soft-start 33. Which motor has its speed determined by the load demand? A. Universal B. Synchronous C. Shaded pole-start D. Permanent-split capacitor Machinery 34. Which is not a major factor affecting optimum seeding rates of planters? A. Moisture available B. Germination C. Row spacing D. Soil type 35. A planter should: A. Have the same seeding rates, no matter what is planted B. Adjusted to 1-2 inches for fast emergence of corn C. Never be pulled faster than 6 MPH D. Only be adjusted once while planting a particular crop 36. Proper storage for a planter is: A. Coat all polished areas with a thin coat of grease to prevent rusting B. Leave hopper 1/4 filled with seed and any insecticide in the hoppers to prevent rusting C. The planter should be left outside during off season times D. Unlatch hoppers from the planter frame and turn upside down for storage 37. Which of the following tillage implements is not a primary tillage tool? A. Molboard plow B. Field cultivator C. Chisel plow D. Subsoiler (v-ripper) 38. Which type of tillage implement provides the most economical way to cultivate plants that are 2 inches tall or shorter? A. Rotary hoe B. Rowcrop cultivator C. Both A & B operate at the same efficiency D. None of the above 39. Which of the following is not a type of harrow? A. Disk-tooth B. Roller C. Tine-tooth D. Spike-tooth 40. Penetration of a disk into the ground depends on: A. Hitch angle B. Soil type C. Soil moisture D. All of the above 41. Which of the following is not considered a secondary tillage implement? A. Disk plow B. Field cultivator C. Disk harrow D. Rotary hoe 42. 42. A properly ballasted tractor for tillage will provide: A. Reduced soil compaction B. An improved ride C. Reduced tire wear D. All of the above 43. When adjusting most tillage implements with a 3-point hitch attachment, one must ensure that: A. The implement is level and at working position B. Adjustments are made with the implement in the raised position C. Adjustments are made with the top link detached D. The tractor is properly ballasted 44. A variable-sheave pulley drive: A. Provides for a variety of driven speeds B. Should not be adjusted when the pulleys are stopped C. Allows shaft speeds to be changed on the go D. All of the above 45. A pulley driver measuring 10cm and turning 300 rpm causes a driven shaft to turn 450 rpm. What size in cm is the driven pulley? A. 5.0 B. 6.6 C. 7.5 D. 10.3 46. Eight 30 inch rows of corn is how many feet wide? A. 24 B. 20 C. 16 D. 8 47. A 12 row planter with 30 inch rows travels 1,452 feet down the row. How many acres are planted? A. 0.5 B. 1.0 C. 1.5 D. 10.0 48. A 20 foot wide disk being pulled at 6 mph has a theoretical field capacity of: A. 6 acres/hour B. 7.2 acres/hour C. 14.5 acres/hour D. 20 acres/hour 49. A tractor and planter travels 3520 feet in 10 minutes. The speed in miles per hour is? A. 3.52 B. 4.0 C. 10.00 D. 35.20 50. A farmer disks 4 acres in 20 minutes. The rate in acres/hour is? A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 24 Tractor Power 51. Which grade number of fuel performs best during extremely cold weather? A. 1-D B. 2-D C. 3-D D. Each (1-D, 2-D, or 3-D) performs equally well during cold weather. 52. The fuel characteristics "cetane number" is used as the ignition indicator for: A. Gasoline B. Methane C. Diesel fuel D. Acetylene 53. The proper ballasting distribution for a MFWD tractor is : A. 40% rear, 60% front B. 50% front, 50% rear C. 30% front, 70% rear D. 40% front, 60% rear 54. A hydrometer is used to test: A. Hydraulic oil pressure B. Specific gravity of a battery C. The level of refrigerant in the air conditioning system D. Water concentration in windshield washer solution 55. After checking the hydraulic oil in your tractor, you notice that the oil has a milky white color. What is the problem? A. Nothing; this is normal B. The oil has chalk in it to show up better on the dipstick C. The oil has milk mixed with the oil D. The oil has water mixed with the oil 56. For most diesel engines, a common compression ratio is: A. 16 to 1 B. 25 to 1 C. 8 to 1 D. 11 to 1 57. The function of the in-line diesel fuel injection pump is to: A. Atomize and spray fuel into the cylinder B. Put the fuel under extremely high pressure C. Serve as a radiator to cool the diesel fuel D. Govern the amount of fuel delivered to the engin. 58. Which of the following is a component of ignition primary circuit? A. Distributor cap B. Condensor C. Distributor rotor D. Spark plug 59. One horsepower is equal to: A. 550 feet/lb/minute B. 33,000 feet/lb/second C. 33,000 feet/lb/minute D. 550 feet/lb/second 60. When boosting a "down" battery one should take care to connect the cables from the battery charger in: A. Parallel B. Tandem C. Series D. Series-parallel 61. Materials used for modern pistons are: A. Gray cast iron B. Cast steel C. Aluminum alloy D. All of the above 62. Which of the following can cause your engine to overheat? A. Loose fan belt B. Engine out of time C. Faulty water pump D. Only A and C are correct 63. When checking the tread marks left on the ground by a tractor tire and noticing that a clear shape of the tire can bee seen, one could assume that the ballast is: A. Too little B. Too much C. About right D. None of the above 64. When adjusting a tube extension type front axle on a tractor care must be given to ensure the maintenance of the correct toe-in. This is accomplished by correctly adjusting the: A. The tapered axle bushing B. The tapered bushing hub C. The steering wheel "play" D. The tie rod linkage 65. Which of the following statements is true for diesel engines? A. Diesel engines do not have an air intake throttle plate B. Diesel engine injectors deliver approximate fuel air mixtures C. Diesel fuel system components generally cost less than gasoline system components D. Fuel cleanliness is of a lesser concern in diesel systems than in gasoline systems 66. Turbo chargers on tractors are powered by: A. The power take off B. The exhaust gases of the engine C. A belt connected to the crankshaft of the engine D. An induced electrical current 67. All new tractors being manufactured today are equipped with this type of power take off drive: A. Transmission-driven PTO B. Continuous running PTO C. Independent PTO D. Hydraulic-driven PTO Concrete and Plumbing 68. Plastic pipe is measured by: A. Nominal outside diameter B. Nominal inside diameter. C. The thickness of the wall of the pipe. D. Length of threads on the pipe. 69. The fitting that should be used when joining two dissimilar types of pipe is a/an: A. Tee B. Union C. Coupling D. Bushing 70. When sweat soldering copper pipes that will be used to route water for human consumption, a plumber should: A. Use a lead/tin ratio of 60/40 B. Use a lead/tin ratio of 40/60 C. Use a lead tin ratio of 50/50 D. Use a lead free solder 71. Removing the burr on the inside of a pipe is important because: A. It may break off and damage valves and other parts B. It may injure someone during assembling C. It may reduce the inside diameter of the pipe D. It may contaminate the water 72. Cast iron pipe is joined with the use of: A. Neoprene gaskets B. Lead & oakum C. Stainless steel clamps D. All of the above are ways to join cast iron pipe 73. Plastic pipe is used in many plumbing applications. The plastic pipe that is recommended for some types of hot water applications is: A. Acrylonitite-baradiene-styrene or ABS B. Polyethlene (PE) C. Polyvinalchloride (PVC) D. Chlorinated polyvinalchloride (CPVC) 74. When conducting an organic matter test, a layer of organic matter that is greater than: (when selecting water for concrete) A. 1/8" is acceptable B. 1/4" is acceptable C. 1/16" is acceptable D. A layer of material is not the issue. The color is. 75. The ideal temperature for doing concrete work is: A. 35 - 50 degrees F B. 50 - 80 degrees F C. 80 - 110 degrees F D. 110 - 145 degrees F 76. One method to prevent faucets from "hammering" is: A. To replace or tighten the loose washer B. To tighten the valve on the faucet C. To replace the seat in the faucet D. None of the above are correct 77. The "key" in concrete work is: A. A notch in the footing B. A notch in the foundation wall C. A way to start your work truck D. A notch in the foundation formwork 78. This type of pump is commonly used to move potable water to the farm home. The electric motor is below the water table or below the surface of the water. This is a: A. Shallow-well pump B. Submersible pump C. Centrifugal jet pump D. Vane pump 79. Which of the following is not a commonly accepted practice to purify water for human consumption: A. Chlorination of the water B. Heating the water C. Ultra-violet light treatment of the water D. Fibre filtration 80. The footer for a concrete wall should be: A. At least as thick as the wall resting on it and at least as wide as the wall resting on it B. At least twice the thickness of the wall resting on it and at least as wide as the wall resting on it C. At least as thick as the wall resting on it and at least twice as wide as the wall restingon it D. At least twice as thick as the wall resting on it and at least twice as wide as the wall resting on it 81. A standard size concrete block when laid will cover an area of: A. 15 5/8" x 7 5/8" B. 16 x 8 C. 16 3/8" x 8 3/8" D. None of the above are correct 82. A suitable coarse aggregate for concrete is: A. 1/4" sand B. 1" coal C. 1/16" dirt D. 3/4" gravel 83. Concrete is stronger when: A. Kept moist for several days after pouring B. Left to cure unattended in 100o F after pouring C. Submerged underwater for several days shortly after pouring D. Allowed to freeze shortly after pouring 84. The test that is used to determine how wet concrete is after mixing is called: A. Organic matter test B. Silt test C. Aggregate test D. Slump test 85. If a slab is supported at both ends, where is the best place to put the rebar to help keep the concrete from breaking when a load is placed on top of the slab.? A. The top portion B. The center portion C. The bottom portion D. It does not make any difference 86. What type of water is best suited for use when mixing concrete for strength? A. Discolored river water B. Pond water C. Salt water D. Potable water. Oxy-Acetylene Welding 87. Acetylene gas can be safely conducted through which type of pipe: A. Rigid copper B. Black C. Plastic (PVC) D. Flexible rubber 88. Brazing flux can be purchased in which of the following forms: A. Liquid B. Powered C. Solid D. All of the above are forms of brazing flux 89. When oxy-acetylene welding with an equal pressuR blowpipe, which of the following best describes oxygen and acetylene pressure settings? A. Oxygen pressures are twice that of acetylene working pressures B. Oxygen and acetylene working pressures are equal C. Acetylene pressure is twice that of the oxygen working pressure D. Acetylene pressue is four times less than the oxygen working pressure 90. Which of the following cylinders uses a fusable safety plug? A. Acetylene B. Oxygen C. Both oxygen and acetylene D. Methane 91. What type of flame possesses an acetylene feather? A. Carburizing B. Nneutral C. Ooxidizing D. None of the above 92. Which of the following can not be adjusted to control heat while oxy-acetylene cutting? A. Speed of travel B. Gas pressure C. Distance from metal D. Angle from metal 93. Tack welding is critical to control distortion when oxy-acetylene welding. Which of the following would be a good technique to reduce distortion? A. Tack weld every 12" B. Tack weld every 6" C. "butt" the metal together as close as possible D. Grinding the "scale" off the metal prior to welding 94. When oxy-acetylene welding, the proper type of flame is determined by: A. The molten metal and type of fuel B. The effect of oxygen and acetylene on grain boundaries of non-ferrous iron oxides C. The chemical composition of the welding rod D. The type of base and filler metals involved and the thickness of the base metal 95. The recommended technique to use when brazing mild steel that is 1/16" thick is the: A. forehand method B. backhand method C. Lefthand method D. Righthand method 96. When a backfire occurs during oxy-acetylene welding, it is most likely the result of: A. Fueling with equal pressures B. the tip nearly touching the work C. Holding the tip ½ " from the work D. Holding the tip 3/8" from the work 97. The preferred flame type to use when using the oxy-acetylene welder to braze weld cast iron is: A. Oxidizing B. Neutral C. Carburizing D. Oxineutralizing 98. A loud snap or pop is heard when oxy-acetylene welding. This is called a: A. Backfire B. Reversefire C. Flashback D. Popping off 99. A type of material that is not found in an acetylene cylinder to help keep the acetylene under pressure is: A. Balsa wood fibers B. Long asbestos fibers C. Fine asbestos fibers D. Pinewood fibers 100. When cutting light sheet metal, the correct torch angle in relation to the metal that you are cutting is: A. 25 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 65 degrees D. 90 degrees