Electrical Circuits
1. What combination of switches may be used to control a light from
four locations?
A. four 3-way switches
B. two 3-way switches and two 4-way switches
C. three 3-way switches and one 4-way switch
D. four 4-way switches
2. Which of the following is the standard length of electrical metallic tubing?
A. 5 ft.
B. 10 ft.
C. 15 ft.
D. 20 ft.
3. According to the National Electric Code, which of the following colors are acceptable for the grounded conductor in a circuit?
A. green
B. any color but black or red
C. bare
D. white or gray
4. Which of the following is a cable type that would be appropriate to use in a barn where the conditions will be moist?
A. NM
B. GE
C. UF
D. TW
5. An "Ampere" is the measurement of the:
A. flow of electrons through a conductor.
B. push on the electrons in a circuit.
C. resistance to the flow of current.
D. electrical power of the circuit.
6. The major purpose of a ground-fault circuit interrupter is:
A. to protect equipment from damage due to overloading.
B. as a replacement for fuses in homes.
C. to protect humans from electrical shock due to a ground fault.
D. to protect appliances in case of a natural disaster.
7. When connecting the branch circuit wires within a panel board (circuit breaker box), it is common practice to place the white wire:
A. under the lug of the circuit breaker.
B. to the terminal bar with the bare ground.
C. to the neutral terminal bar.
D. under the lug of a fuse.
8. According to the National Electric Code, when securing electrical cable to a wooden surface (ie. a stud), it is a safe practice to place:
A. the staple within 8 inches of a plastic device box.
B. the staple within 12 inches of a plastic device box.
C. the staple within 18 inches of the metal device box.
D. the staple within 13 inches of the metal device box.
9. Which of the following overcurrent devices are designed to handle a "surge" of power that would occur when a large electrical load is energized.
A. Time delay fuse
B. Edison base fuse
C. Circuit breaker
D. Ground Fault Circuit interrupter
10. The largest breaker than can be used to safely protect a 12 gauge wire is:
A. 15 AMP breaker.
B. 20 AMP breaker.
C. 30 AMP breaker.
D. 12 AMP breaker.
11. According to the National Electric code, wall switches should be placed:
A. 36 inches from the floor.
B. 42 inches from the floor.
C. 48 inches from the floor.
D. None of the above.
12. Electrical wiring systems are properly grounded by attaching:
A. A conductor to the water system using PVC pipe.
B A conductor to the water system with metal pipe.
C. A conductor to a copper ground rod ½ inch in diameter
and 8 feet long.
D. Either B or C is correct.
13. The purpose of a transformer is to change the amount of _____ from one value to another.
A. Watts
B. OHMS
C. Voltage
D. Microfarads
14. Three phase electrical power refers to a system with:
A. Three hot wires, each having a different voltage relative
to ground.
B. Three central metering locations on the farmstead.
C. Three circuits from any service entrance.
D. Three hot wires each having the same voltage relative to ground.
15. The electrical device that registers the electrical energy used is the:
A. Watt-hour meter.
B. Voltmeter.
C. Ammeter.
D. Ohmmeter.
16. A individual circuit is one that is:
A. Wired from only one entrance panel.
B. Wired to one outlet.
C. Wired by only one person.
D. Wired to one room.
17. The NEC states that all current interrupting devices must be installed in the:
A. Ungrounded wire of the circuit.
B. Grounded wire of the circuit.
C. Neutral wire of the circuit.
D. Grounding wire of the circuit.
Machinery
18. During the planting season, a farmer decides to recheck the plant population of his/her corn. The farmer has a 6 row-30 inch row width planter. When examining the how many seeds he is planting he learns that there are 470 total seeds for the 6 rows after planting 60 feet. How many seeds per acre is the farmer applying?
A. 22,748
B. 22,700
C. 22,800
D. 22,730
19. Operating a PTO driven air planter with underinflated tires will cause:
A. overseeding
B. underseeding
C. Underinflated tires will not effect the number of seeds per
acre
D. none of the above
20. A farmer is operating his/her 12 row 30" planter at 6.5 mph at 85% field efficiency. How many acres will the farmer cover in a 10 hour workday?
A. 200.9 acres/day
B. 220 acres/day
C. 20.9 acres/day
D. none of the above
21. How many tons per hour would a farmer bale if he/she is baling a 24' windrow that yields 2 tons/acre? Assume he/she is driving 4 mph and operating at 80% efficiency.
A. 18.61 tons/hr
B. 17.61 tons/hr
C. 19 tons/hr
D. 20 tons/hr
22. The servicing of any machine should be done:
A. according to the operator's manual.
B. whenever you want to do it.
C. when the dealer says you should.
D. none of the above.
23. Before unplugging a baler, the operator should:
A. shut off PTO
B. shut off tractor
C. unhook power source
D. both A & B
24. When a safety decal becomes destroyed or lost, the operator should:
A. still be aware even though they are not there.
B. paint over the spot to prevent it from rusting.
C. install new decals.
D. not worry about it.
25. 1000 R.P.M. power take-off shafts are usually equipped with:
A. 21 splines.
B. 22 splines.
C. 6 splines.
D. 5 splines.
26. A common pressure range for farm field sprayer applications is:
A. 10-80
B. 75-150
C. 100-200
D. 150-300
27. Assume you are plowing a field with a 12 foot chisel plow. Your ground speed is 6 M.P.H. Assuming you 90 percent efficient, how many acres can you plow in a 10 hour day?
A. 60
B. 70
C. 150
D. none of the above
28. The tailings auger on a combine:
A. augers grain back to the screens for further separation.
B. augers dirty grain into the concave/threshing area of the
combine.
C. augers chaff out onto the ground.
D. augers clean grain into the grain tank.
29. Timeliness losses result from a machine that is:
A. undersized.
B. Oversized.
C. Mismatched to the power unit.
D. Overloaded.
30. Calculate the width of a field sprayer that is able to spray 15 acres per hour while traveling at 5 mph and operating at 50% efficiency.
A. 36
B. 40
C. 44
D. 48
31. Penetration of a shovel on a row-crop cultivator is determined by:
A. The degree of pitch of the shovel.
B. The setting on the hydraulic cylinder.
C. The setting on the hydraulic lever in the cab of the tractor.
D. Something other than choices A, B, or C.
32. The outer end of a mower cutter bar:
A. Should lead or be set ahead of the inner end of the cutter
bar.
B. Should lag or be set behind the inner end of the cutter bar.
C. Should neither lag nor lead the inner end of the cutter bar.
D. Should be ignored when adjusting your mower.
33. A combine operator notices an excessive amount of threshed grain behind the straw chopper of a combine. The source of this problem could be:
a. Sieve and chaffer set too wide.
b. Sieve and chaffer set too tight.
c. Fan RPMs low.
d. Cylinder RPMs low.
Arc Welding
34. Which of the following is not a cause of weld porosity?
A. too long of arc length
B. improper storage of the electrode
C. excessive travel speed
D. all of the above
35. An E6013 rod should be stored:
A. at room temperature
B. at 250-300 degrees F
C. at 350-400 degrees F
D. none of the above
36. When using reverse polarity, the electrode is:
A. positive
B. negative
C. both a and b
D. none of the above
37. When welding a thick plate in the vertical position, you should:
A. weld using the vertical down technique
B. weld using the vertical up technique
C. weld using either the vertical up or vertical down technique.
D. not attempt the weld because it is not possible.
38. The first pass when butt welding is called:
A. butt pass
B. root pass
C. filler pass
D. cap weld
39. Which of the following materials is safe to wear when arc welding?
A. polyester
B. wool
C. cotton
D. either cotton or wool
40. When MIG welding, the lens shade number that should be adequate to protect your eyes while welding is:
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
41. Which shielding gas allows the greatest penetration when "MIG" welding?
A. argon
B. M1
C. carbon dioxide
D. M5
42. Which of the following is the primarily way to adjust the amperage of a MIG welder?
A. nozzle angle
B. wire feed speed
C. travel speed
D. both a and b
43. Which type of electrical current best controls the problem of arc blow?
A. DC+
B. DC-
C. AC
D. water
44. Which of the following causes the problem of undercutting when arc welding?.
A. travel speed is excessive
B. current too low
C. arc length is too short
D. using a 15 degree lead angle when welding a flat bead
45. A common wire size when MIG welding is:
A. .002".
B. .035".
C. .350".
D. .020".
46. The type of current most commonly used when MIG welding is (on 95% of all applications):
A. DCSP, or electrode negative
B. DCRP, or electrode positive
C. AC
D. all of the above
47. Four basic welding positions are:
A. flat, horizontal, overhead, vertical.
B. flat, side, overhead, horizontal.
C. horizontal, flat, vertical, side.
D. under water, horizontal, overhead, vertical.
48. Distortion can be described as:
A. angular.
B. transverse.
C. longitudinal.
D. all of the above.
49. The "duty" cycle of an arc welder is tested in:
A. 10 minute test cycles.
B. 1 hour test cycles.
C. 10 hour test cycles.
D. 24 hour test cycles.
50. When selecting MIG electrodes, the American Welding Society coding "T" is used to designate:
A. Tungsten wire.
B. Tubular wire.
C. Flux-Covered wire.
D. Solid wire.
Small Gas Engines
51. The air-fuel mixture goes first into the crankcase in this type of an engine.
A. 2 cycle engine
B. 4 cycle engine
C. Diesel cycle engine
D. L P gas cycle engine
52. Engines from the same brand or manufacturer could have all the same:
A. Serial number.
B. Engine number.
C. Model number.
D. Accessory sequencing number.
53. The two materials that most engine blocks are cast from for small gasoline engine blocks are:
A. Aluminum and cast iron.
B. Copper and aluminum.
C. Magnesium and cast iron.
D. Tin and zinc.
54. The outside micrometer and telescoping gage are used to measure:
A. Valve clearance.
B. Cylinder diameter.
C. Crankshaft end play.
D. Microfarads.
55. In the 4-cycle small gas engine, how many complete revolutions of the crankshaft are needed to complete one cycle?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
56. Which of the following indicates the correct sequence for a 4-cycle engine?
A. Intake - compression - power - exhaust
B. Intake - compression - exhaust - power
C. Intake - power - exhaust - compression
D. Intake - power - compression - exhaust
57. When a piston reaches the top of the power stroke it is said to be at:
A. IRS
B. ADC
C. BDE
D. TDC
58. What is the primary difference between the lubrication systems of the 2 and 4 cycle engine?
A. 2 cycle uses a splash system, the 4 cycle used a pump
system
B. 2 cycle mixes the oil and fuel together
C. 4 cycle uses a higher quality of oil
D. 2 cycle uses considerably more oil
59. The path of electricity in the spark plug is:
A. Down the electrode.
B. Down the center electrode.
C. Down the center electrode to the ground electrode and
across the air gap.
D. Down the porcelain across the air gap to the main electrode.
60. The function of the magneto is to:
A. Provide electrical energy for the ignition.
B. Provide electrical energy for the battery.
C. Provide electrical energy to open the points.
D. Provide electrical energy to the electrical auxiliary
system.
61. The difference between cold, hot, and normal spark plugs is the:
A. Electrode gap setting.
B. Physical size of the plug.
C. The length of the insulator tip.
D. The length of the terminal tip.
62. When setting the gap of a sparkplug you should use a/an:
A. Flat feeler gage.
B. Inside micrometer.
C. Vernier caliper.
D. Round feeler gage.
63. The name given to the Briggs & Stratton transistorized ignition system is:
A. Quick - N - Easy.
B. Magnetron.
C. Magnetized.
D. Megatron.
64. The part on a recoil starter that breaks most frequently is:
A. The rope.
B. Spring.
C. Guide lug.
D. Hub.
65. The recommended spark plug electrode gap on most all Briggs & Stratton NON-Electronic engines is:
A. 0.020 inches.
B. 0.030 inches.
C. 0.200 inches.
D. 0.300 inches.
66. The recommended oil change interval on newer Briggs & Stratton engines is:
A. 10 hours.
B. 25 hours.
C. 50 hours.
D. 100 hours.
Carpentry
67. Which of the following equals one board foot of lumber?
A. 1" x 12" x 1'
B. 2" x 6" x 12"
C. 3" x 8" x 6"
D. all of the above
68. Which of the following "R" values has the highest heat flow for a given temperature difference?
A. 12
B. 15
C. 18
D. 21
69. How many studs are needed for a 16' wall if the studs are placed
2' on center?
Double studs will be placed at each end of the wall?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. none of the above
70. The horizontal members that siding is attached to in post-frame (pole) building construction are called:
A. girts.
B. poles.
C. purlins.
D. headers.
71. Which of the following is not a softwood lumber species?
A. Blue spruce
B. Douglas fir
C. Cottonwood
D. Idaho white pine
72. The type of plywood that should be selected for use inside a confinement livestock facility is (cost should be one of the factors considered):
A. C-C grade interior glue.
B. A-C grade exterior glue.
C. C-C grade exterior glue.
D. none of the above.
73. Plywood where the grain on adjacent plies are perpendicular will have:
A. an odd number of plies
B. an even number of plies
C. both even or odd number of plies
D. none of the above
74. A ridgeboard is not commonly used in this situation:
A. With a truss-type rafter.
B. With post-frame construction.
C. With Arch roofs.
D. With studwall construction with common rafters.
75. The Birdsmouth is:
A. At the eave of the building.
B. A notch made in the rafter to fit the top plate.
C. the part of the rafter which projects over the top plate.
D. connects rafters at the peak of the roof.
76. The type of saw that can be used to cut out irregular shaped holes in wood is the:
A. coping saw.
B. ripsaw.
C. crosscut saw.
D. Hack saw.
77. A cross-cut handsaw that is designed for finishing work would have:
A. the same number of teeth per inch as a saw used for framing
B. more teeth per inch than a cross-cut saw used for framing
C. less teeth per inch than a cross-cut saw used for framing
D. no teeth but sharp razor-like cutting edges
78. The most important safety rule to remember when ripping with the radial arm saw is:
A. Always use a cross-cut blade.
B. That the anti-kickback fingers must be positioned at least
2 inches above stock.
C. The material is fed into the saw in the same direction that
the blade is rotating.
D. The material is fed into the saw in the opposite direction
that the blade is rotating.
79. Batterboards are used for:
A. Setting up reference lines for foundation walls.
B. For mixing batter when plastering a wall.
C. Bracing the truss to the post or pole.
D. Bracing the foundation wall when placing concrete.
80. A "square" of roofing material:
A. will cover 100 square feet of roof area
B. will cover 144 square feet of roof area
C. is cut in square shapes for easier installation
D. refers only to roofing and siding shingle materials
81. The type of rafter that extends from the ridge board to a valley
rafter is:
A. Hip jack rafter.
B. Valley jack rafter.
C. Common rafter.
D. Cripple jack rafter.
82. The minimum length board that can be safely worked using a jointer is:
A. 14 inches.
B. 12 inches.
C. 10 inches.
D. 8 inches.
83. The name of a power tool that should be selected when straightening the edge of board:
A. jointer.
B. planer.
C. table saw.
D. radial arm saw.
Soil and Water Conservation
84. Which of the following is the universal soil loss equation?
A. A equals RKLSCP
B. L equals RKASCP
C. A equals RKLNCP
D. L equals RLDNCP
85. Which of the following is not a result of Soil Erosion?
A. Improved infiltration rate
B. Loss of nutrients
C. Loss in production potential
D. Reduced storage capacity
86. Identify which of the following will not reduce wind erosion.
A. windbreaks
B. strip cropping
C. crop residue
D. conventional tillage practices
87. This type of erosion results from a combination of raindrop splash and surface runoff.
A. channels
B. gullies
C. sheet
D. freezing and thawing
88. What is the amount of error that must be considered when looking at an object 150 ft. away with a hand level (assume the approximate error is .1 ft per 30 ft)?
A. 1 ft.
B. 5 in.
C. 2 in.
D. 6 in.
89. The name of the farming practice that involved "farming across" the slope?
A. strip cropping
B. contour farming
C. no-till farming
D. crop rotation
90. Which of the following types of terraces are the most farmable?
A. the steep backslope
B. the narrow base
C. broad base
D. none of the above
91. Point A is 12 rods away from point B. What is this distance?
A. 12 feet
B. 198 feet
C. 120 feet
D. 240 feet
92. A farm pond contains 1,401,625 gallons of water. How many acre-feet does it contain?
A. 1140 acre-ft
B. 3.5 acre-ft
C. 20.4 acre-ft
D. 100 acre-ft
93. How many acres are covered by a piece of land 5280 ft by 2640 ft?
A. 640 acres
B. 1 acre
C. 150 acres
D. 320 acres
94. You are about to determine the width of a strip for contour strip cropping. You have taken elevation readings at two points that are 100' apart. If the rod reading that you have taken with a level is 4.19' as compared to 7.3' , how wide should your strip be? Use the table provided.
Suggested Strip Widths for Contour Strip Cropping
Slope (%)
Width of Strip (FT)
2-7
88-100
7-12
74-88
12-18
60-74
18-24
50-60
A. 50 - 60 feet.
B. 60 - 74 feet.
C. 74 - 88 feet.
D. 88 - 100 feet.
95. Which of the following soil types listed below is least likely to erode (assuming soil moisture is constant)?
A. Fine Sandy Loam
B. Loam
C. Clay
D. Wind erosion affect each soil type the same.
96. Doubling the velocity of the water concerning soil erosion:
A. Doubled the erosive property of the water.
B. Triples the erosive property of the water.
C. Quadruples the erosive property of the water.
D. Does not affect the amount of soil erosion that occurs.
97. Increasing the length of a given slope:
A. Increases soil erosion and run-off water.
B. Increases soil erosion and yet reduces run-off water.
C. Decreases soil erosion and run-off water.
D. Decreases soil erosion but increases run-off water.
98. An advantage of using a self-leveling type of level is that:
A. It takes much time to set up when compared to a dumpy level.
B. It takes very little time to set up as compared to a dumpy
level.
C. It is the most precise of all levels.
D. It contains a coincidence bubble like the tilting level.
99. The abbreviation "FS" is taken:
A. Looking at a known elevation
B. Looking at an unknown elevation.
C. To determine the height of the instrument.
D. By the rear chainman.
100. Which of the following is a source of error when leveling?
A. Using clean optics.
B. Settling of the rod or level.
C. Testing the level frequently when in use.
D. Placing the level on firm ground