Electrical Circuits

1. Electrical conductors can be enclosed in:

 A. Thin wall (EMT).
 B. Rigid conduit.
 C. Flexible armored cable.
 D. A plastic sheath.
 E. All of the above.

2. Electrical systems are best grounded by attaching:

 A. A conductor to the water system using PVC pipe.
 B. A conductor to the water system with metal pipe.
 C. A conductor to a copper ground rod ½ inch in diameter and 8 feet long.
 D. Any of the above.

3. A transformer is a machine that changes the amount of _____ from one value to another.

 A. Amperes
 B. Ohms
 C. Volts
 D. Microfarads

4. Electrical pressure in a circuit is measured in:

 A. Ohms
 B. Amperes
 C. Watts
 D. Volts

5. Current in a circuit is measured in:

 A. Volts
 B. Ohms
 C. Amperes
 D. Watts

6. Which metal is the poorest conductor of electricity?

 A. Copper
 B. Aluminum
 C. Cesium
 D. Silver
 E. Nichrome

7. Phase converters:

 A. Make it possible to operate three-phase motors from single-phase services.
 B. Make it possible to store heat energy in all three phases.
 C. Change ac power to dc power.
 D. Are used by power companies to decrease voltage.

8. The electrical device that registers the number of kilowatt hours of electrical energy used is the:

  A. ammeter
 B. Voltmeter
 C. Service entrance meter
 D. Ohmmeter

9. Transformer styles are:

 A. Delta.
 B. Wye or y.
 C. Alpha.
 D. A and B.

10. A special purpose circuit is one that is:

 A. Wired to one outlet.
 B. Wired from only one entrance panel.
 C. Wired by only one person.
 D. Wired to one room.

11. In order to control a lamp from five locations, you need:

 A. Three 2-way switches
 B. Two 3-way switches and two 4-way switches
 C. One 2-way and two 3-way switches
 D. Two 3-way and three-4-way switches
 

12. The purpose of the ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) is to:

 A. Provide protection for persons using faulty equipment.
 B. Signal the probability of an earthquake.
 C. Render a faulty appliance inoperable.
 D. None of the above.

13. The bare grounding wire of a branch circuit is connected from:

 A. The metal outlet boxes to the ground rod.
 B. Neutral bar of the service entrance panel.
 C. The silver terminal of all fixtures.
 D. A cold water pipe.

14. When working with electrical circuits, bonding is:

 A. A process whereby copper is coated to aluminum wire.
 B. The permanent joining of metallic parts to form a conductive path.
 C. The posting of money as surety or bond by the electrical contractor.
 D. The taping together of metallic parts to form a conductive path.

15. Present day alternating current systems are usually:

 A. 20 hertz
 B. 50 hertz
 C. 60 hertz
 D. 120 hertz

16. The size of wire for farm wiring is determined by:

 A. The relative costs of the conductors.
 B. The ampacity required in the circuit- strength of the wire and voltage drop.
 C. The distance from the generation facility.
 D. The number of individual circuits in the installation.
 

Machinery

17. Bale density on a small square baler is adjusted by:

 A.  increasing ground speed
 B.  reducing ground speed
 C.  increasing the length of the plunger
 D.  reducing the length of the plunger
 E.  none of the above

18. The type of machinery most sensitive to variations in travel speed is:

 A.  ground wheel driven
 B.  power take-off driven
 C.  constant delivery
 D.  none of the above

19.  What are the three most common types of hydraulic pumps?

 A.  vane, piston and gear
 B.  diaphragm, plunger, and gear
 C.  plunger, gear, siphon
 D.  vane, roller, siphon

 20. The last furrow to be made in a field with a standard moldboard plow is the:

 A.  back furrow
 B.  head furrow
 C.  dead furrow
 D.  land furrow

21. A grain drill is most commonly used to plant this crop:

 A.  wheat
 B.  corn
 C.  soybeans
 D.  sorghum

22. One horsepower is defined as:

 A.  550 foot pounds per second
 B.  33,000 foot pounds per second
 C.  33,000 foot pounds per hour
 D.  550 foot pounds per minute

23. A 5-16" moldboard plow would operate best at a depth of:

 A.  16"
 B.  8"
 C.  6"
 D.  12"

24. If the crop is excessively carried around the combine reel, the reel is:

  A.  set too high.
 B.  set too low.
 C.  rotating too slow.
 D.  rotating slower than the travel speed of the combine.

25. The fingers of the platform auger should be adjusted so that they:

 A.  just clear the platform.
 B.  are within 2 " of the platform.
 C.  are within 1 ½ " of the platform.
 D.  are within 1" of the platform.
 
26. Combine reel speed should be _______ faster than combine forward travel speed.
 
 A. 125%
 B. 100%
 C. 50%
 D. 25%

27. Banana shaped small square bales are caused by:

 A. a dull knotter knife
 B. a dull bale chamber knife
 C. improper tractor PTO speed
 D. Incorrect needle timing

28. Baling alfalfa hay is best at ___% moisture

 A. 15
 B. 20
 C. 25
 D. 30

29. Tractor PTO Hp is best if it is more than _____% of fly wheel horsepower.

 A. 100%
 B. 96%
 C. 86%
 D. 76%
 
30. Tractor drawbar horsepower on concrete should be at least _____% of the tractor PTO  Hp.

 A. 100%
 B. 96%
 C. 86%
 D. 76%

31. A rotary hoe can best be operated at _____ miles per hour.

 A.   5
 B. 10
 C. 15
 D. 20

32. The greatest cause of wear in hydraulic systems is:

 A.  moisture
 B.  dirt
 C.  rust
 D.  none of the above
 

Arc Welding

33. The first bead welded over the root pass is the:

 A.  hot pass
 B.  cap pass
 C.  joining pass
 D.  all of the above

34. The lead angle when arc welding in the flat position should be:
 A.  5 degrees
 B. 10 degrees
 C. 15 degrees
 D. 30 degrees.

35. Undercutting generally occurs when:.

 A.  welding amperage is set too low
 B.  welding amperage is set too high
 C.  welding in a horizontal position
 D.  welding in an overheard position
 

36. E8010 electrodes, properly used, will produce a weld with a tensile strength of:

 A.  1000 psi.
 B.  8000 psi.
 C.  8010 psi.
 D.  80,000 psi.
 
37. The "2" in E7024 stands for:

 A.  the tensile strength of the electrode
 B.  the electrode can be used in any position
 C.  the electrode can only be used in either the horizontal or flat position
 D.  the electrode has to stored at 100 degrees F.

38. The __________electrode is preferred when welding rusty, painted mild steel..

 A.  E6011
 B.  E6013
 C.  E6049
 D.  E7018

39. Electrode selection is dependent upon:

 A.  the thickness of the metal
 B.  the length of metal
 C.  it does not matter just start welding
 D.  both a & b

40. An E7018 electrode is recommended for welding in the _________position.

 A.  horizontal
 B.  vertical
 C.  flat
 D.  any

41. When welding, _________should be avoided because it will produce a toxic gas while being welded:

 A.  cast iron
 B.  galvanized or zinc coated metals
 C.  low carbon steel
 D. stainless

42. You should always adjust the amperage of your MIG welder when:

 A.  you are welding to properly fine tune it.
 B.  the power is off
 C.  proper penetration occurs
 D.  none of the above

43. Overwelding is:

 A. a good practice because it creates a strong joint.
 B. something that occurs when welding too fast.
 C. a poor practice because it leads to distortion.
 D. not a problem good, it provides a sound weld.
 
44. When using AC current on a DC welder, the electrode is:

 A. negative.
 B.  positive.
 C.  50% positive and 50% negative.
 D.  neutral
 
45. When arc welding you should use a number ______ lens:

 A.  3-4 shade
 B.  4-6 shade
 C.  6-8 shade
 D.  10-12 shade

46. You have just completed a pass using an E7018 electrode.  You notice some porosity in your weld.  The cause is most likely due to:

 A.  traveling too fast
 B.  maintaining too short an arc
 C.  maintaining too long an arc
 D.  traveling too slow
 E.   none of the above

47. If arc gap is too long:

 A.  excessive spatter and poor penetration will occur
 B.  excellent penetration will occur
 C.  electrode will stick to the metal
 D.  excessive slag will form

48. An E7024 electrode is a:

 A.  fast freeze electrode
 B.  fast fill electrode
 C.  fill freeze electrode
 D.  none of the above
 

Small Gas Engines

49. Flywheels used on Briggs and Stratton engines are made of:

 A.  aluminum
 B.  zinc
 C.  cast iron
 D.  all of the above

50. Too little valve clearance:
 
 A. prevents waste gases from being completely removed from the combustion chamber
 B. causes fuel-air mixture to enter the combustion chamber late.
 C. lengthens the time the valves are open.
 D. shortens the time the valve are open.

51. Two stroke engines (ie. chain saw) use:

 A.  poppet-type valves
 B.  reed-type valves
 C.  globe-type valves
 D.  gate-type valves

52. The name of the cleaning liquid that is recommended when cleaning the foam air cleaning element for a Briggs and Stratton engine is:

 A.  cold water
 B.  hot soapy water
 C.  gasoline
 D.  mineral spirits

53. If the spark plug fires incorrectly the problem is likely to be:

 A.  vacuum advance not operating
 B.  incorrect valve clearance
 C.  flywheel key is sheared or partially sheared
 D.  none of the above

54. The sparkplug in a Briggs & Stratton engine (4 - stroke) fires every _______ (assume that the ignition system is functioning properly).

 A.  revolution of the crankshaft.
 B.  every other revolution of the crankshaft.
 C.  every fourth revolution of the crankshaft.
 D.  two times during each complete revolution of the crankshaft.

55. The condenser on your Briggs & Stratton has failed.  The recommend repair procedure your Briggs & Stratton dealer will bring to your attention is for you to:

 A.  buy a new engine.
 B.  replace the condenser.
 C.  install a magnatron ignition system.
 D.  install an off-brand condenser.

56. The camshaft of a 2-stroke engine rotates:

 A.  twice as fast as the camshaft in a four-stroke engine.
 B.  ½ as fast as the camshaft in a two-stroke engine.
 C.  1/4 as fast as the camshaft in a two-stroke engine.
 D.  none of the above are correct.

57. The most amount of cylinder wear in a small gasoline engine should be found:

 A.  near the top of the cylinder.
 B.  near the bottom of the cylinder.
 C.  near the middle of the cylinder.

58. Piston slap results from excessive clearance between:

 A.  the piston and the rings.
 B.  the piston and the exhaust valve.
 C.  the piston and the cylinder head.
 D.  the piston and the cylinder wall.

59. The purpose of the engine governor is:

 A.  maintain varying engine speeds.
 B.  allow the engine to respond to varying loads.
 C.  to close the throttle and choke the engine.
 D.  a and b are correct.

60. Which of the following could potentially cause the engine to appear under-choked?

 A.  the air cleaner stud bent.
 B.  the diaphragm ruptured.
 C.  the needle valve seat is loose.
 D.  the choke is sticking.

61. The crankcase oil that is recommended by Briggs & Stratton for their engines during summer months (50 - 90o F.) is:

 A.  5W - 30.
 B.  10W - 30.
 C.  15W - 40.
 D.  30W

62. The sparkplug in a Briggs & Stratton engine (4 - stroke) fires every _______ (assume that the electrical system is functioning properly).

 A.  revolution of the crankshaft.
 B.  every other revolution of the crankshaft.
 C.  every fourth revolution of the crankshaft.
 D.  two times during each complete revolution of the crankshaft.

63. "Classic" Briggs & Stratton engines:

 A.  must be fueled with fresh unleaded gasoline.
 B.  must be fueled with fresh super unleaded gasoline.
 C.  must be fueled with fresh leaded gasoline.
 D.  required that the operator mix oil with the gasoline.

64. Opening the breaker points in a 2-stroke engine stops/interrupts the flow of current in the:

 A.  primary circuit of the engine.
 B.  secondary circuit of the engine.
 C.  high voltage circuit of the engine.
 D.  electric starter of the engine.
 

Carpentry

65. A roof with a ¼ pitch means:

 A.  rise is 3" per foot run
 B.  run is 3" per foot rise
 C.  rise is 6" per foot run
 D.  run is 6" per foot rise

66. The name given to the horizontal members which metal roofing is attached to in pole building construction is:

 A.  purlin
 B.  headers
 C.  girts
 D.  poles

67. The name given when the bark or wood is missing, due to any cause, on the edge or corner of a piece of lumber.

 A.  split
 B.  wane
 C.  warp
 D.  crook

68. Attaching corrugated metal roofing with screws requires that the screws be placed:

 A.  in the "valley".
 B.  on the "ridge".
 C.  either in the valley or on the ridge.
 D.  in the center of the sheet.

69. The actual size of a nominal sized 4 x 6 is:

 A.  3 ½" x 5 ½"
 B.  4 ½" x 6 ¼"
 C.  4" x 6"
 D.  3 ¼" x 5 ¼"

70. The actual size of a 4 x 8 is:

 A.   3 ½" x 7 ½"
 B.   4 ½" x 7 ¼"
 C.   4" x 8"
 D.   3 ½" x 7 ¼"

71. The actual size of a 8 x 8 is

 A.   7 ½" x 7 ½"
 B.   7 ¼" x 7 ½"
 C.   7 ¼" x 7 ¼"
 D.   7 ½" x 7 ¼"

72. The function of a vapor barrier or retarder is to:

 A. keep rain from leaking through the walls and ceiling
 B. keep water vapor from moving from high to low humidity area
 C. reduce drafts through the wall
 D. allow water vapor to pass through but prevent water leaks

73. In an animal confinement building in winter, vapor barrier or retarders:

 A. are not needed when mechanical ventilation is used
 B. are installed under the building interior lining (wall and ceiling covering)
 C. are installed under the building exterior lining (wall and roof covering)
 D. are used under the floor only

74. How many inches of concrete (r = 0.08ft2 F/ Btu.in) will have the same thermal resistance  as  ½" of expanded plastic insulation (r = 4.00 ft2 F/ Btu.in) :
 
 A. 25
 B. 5
 C. 8
 D. 4

75. A 0.6 CCA wood preservative treatment means that:

 A. the wood has 0.6 pound of preservative per cubic foot of lumber
 B. the wood was treated with 0.6% preservative solution
 C. the treated lumber can be used no closer than 0.6 foot off the ground surface
 D. 0.6% of the wood is not treated and may decay

76. Oriented Strand Board (OSB) is:

 A. 2" lumber laminated into larger beams or columns
 B. a sheet material that can be substituted for plywood
 C. another name for chipboard
 D. a veneer overlayed board made of compressed paper

77. The beams over windows and doors are called:

 A.  girders
 B.  plates
 C.  rafters
 D.  lintels
 

78. The horizontal pressure treated lumber below the siding of a post frame wall is the

 A. splash board
 B. skirt board
 C. black board
 D. all the above

79. A hip roof:

 A. has no gable wall areas
 B. is used for hay storage buildings
 C. is the most common type of roof for agricultural buildings
 D. is an arched roof shape

80. When using plywood for roof sheathing, the face grain of the plywood should be:

 A.  parallel to the support rafters
 B.  perpendicular to or across the support rafters
 C.  none of the above
 

Soil and Water Conservation

81. The most important factor affecting runoff  rate is:

 A.  tillage practice
 B.  vegetative cover
 C.  slope of land
 D.  time of concentration
 E.   none of above

82. The trickle spillway in a farm pond (earthen embankment):

 A.  maintains a constant water level
 B.  should have a drop inlet
 C.  protects the emergency spillway
 D.  none of the above

83. The average grade necessary for the satisfactory operation of a tile drainage system is 3 to 6 percent.  How much drop in elevation should be planned for a 250 foot tile drain?

 A.  3 - 6 feet
 B.  6 - 12 feet
 C.  7.5 - 15 feet
 D.  none of the above
 

84. Under similar tillage practices, which of the following crops would provide the least protection against soil erosion?

 A.  cultivated corn
 B.  hard red winter wheat
 C.  barley
 D.  none of the above

85. Farmer Pete has decided to utilize contour strip cropping to reduce wind erosion problems.  When Pete lays out his strips he should:

 A.  place the strips parallel to the prevailing winds
 B.  place the strips perpendicular to the prevailing winds
 C.  either of the above

86. The formula to determine an allowable error for a differential leveling exercise is:

                                    __
                        .0014 *    \  | Distance traversed in feet
                                         \ |

 If your differential leveling exercise covered 100 feet and the actual error calculated from your field notes was .05, should you rerun the leveling exercise?

 A.  yes, the error was too great
 B.  no, its ok
 
87. You have recorded the following readings while conducting a profile leveling exercise:  4.32, 4.35, 4.31, 4.30 and 4.33.  Which of the statements below is true of your readings?  Note: the instrument has not been moved.

 A.  the backsight readings taken above are nearly level
 B.  the foresight readings taken above are nearly level
 C.  the reading taken above indicate a great deal of fill dirt is needed

88. When using the universal soil-loss equation A = RKLSCP, the term "S" is a function of:

 A. rainfall
 B. soil erodibility
 C. slope length
 D. slope gradient
 
 
 

89. Erosion produced channels that cannot be obliterated by tillage are called:

 A. gully erosion.
 B. rill erosion.
 C. sheet erosion.
 D. wind erosion.

90. Which of the following erosion control practices will result in the least amount of soil erosion on an annual basis?

 A. contour cropping
 B. strip cropping
 C. terracing
 D. terracing and contouring

91. The Universal Soil Loss Equation estimates:

 A. storm by storm soil loss from the lower end of a waterway
 B.  storm by storm soil loss from a uniformly sloping hillside
 C.  average annual soil loss from the lower end of a waterway
 D.  average annual soil loss from a uniformly sloping hillside

92. The benefits of a farm pond include:

 A.  water for livestock
 B.  aesthetic values
 C.  recreational uses
 D.  both a and c
 E.   all of the above

93. Which of the following tillage systems would allow herbicides to be incorporated properly?

 A.  conventional tillage practices
 B.  minimum tillage practices
 C.  no-till tillage practices

94. Crop damage due to flooding generally occurs after the crop is submerged for:

 A.  2-4 hours.
 B.  5 - 7 hours.
 C.  8 - 10 hours.
 D.  11 - 13 hours.
 

95. The cost of soil erosion can be seen with:

 A.  increase in production potential
 B.  decrease in draft on tillage equipment
 C. more field efficiency as a result of gullies
 D. decrease in the number of days when soil conditions are favorable

96. Three main types of transport by wind erosion includes all of the following except:

 A. saltation
 B. cascading
 C. surface creep
 D. suspension

97.  Which of the following will reduce wind erosion?

 A. dry climate
 B. flat surface
 C. lighter soil particles
 D. vegetation and residue cover

98 Which of the following practice will help control erosion?

 A. strip farming
 B. shelter belts
 C. both a & b
 D. neither will help

99.  A ten year frequency storm compared to a 25 year frequency storm will:

 A. Be of lower average intensity.
 B. Be of greater average intensity.
 C. Will occur less often.

100. Which of the Universal Soil Loss Equation factors can be change to reduce soil erosion estimates?
 
 A.  R -
 B.  K -
 C.  LS - length of slope factor
 D.  C & P - crop management  & conservation practice factors
 E.   both c and d