You will have 60 minutes to complete this examination. Answer the questions by selecting the best answer for each question. Mark your answer on the quick-scan sheet provided.

DO NOT WRITE ON THIS EXAM!!

Repair & Maintenance

1. The tool that should be used to locate a hole to be drilled in steel is:

a. cold chisel.
b. wood chisel.
c. scratch awl.
d. center punch.

2. Corners of frames and doors may be strengthened by using a:

a. hasp.
b. butt hinge.
c. flush plate.
d. hook and eye bolt.

3 An example of a layout tool is:

a. claw hammer.
b. outside calipers.
c. hand saw.
d. plug cutter.

4. The name of a tool which is designed to clean a file is:

a. emery cloth.
b. sandpaper.
c. file cloth.
d. file card.

5. Which is not the name of a type of nail?

a. lumber.
b. plaster board.
c. roofing.
d. duplex.

6. What is the recommended angle to sharpen a cold chisel?

a. 25 to 29 degrees
b. 60 to 75 degrees
c. 120 to 135 degrees
d. 8 to 12 degrees

7. What is the recommended angle to sharpen a wood chisel?

a. 25 to 29 degrees
b. 60 to 75 degrees
c. 120 to 135 degrees
d. 8 to 12 degrees

8. What is the recommended dead center angle to sharpen a twist drill?

a. 25 to 29 degrees
b. 60 to 75 degrees
c. 120 to 135 degrees
d. 8 to 12 degrees

9. Which of the following procedures is not used when sharpening a wood handsaw?

a. jointing
b. setting
c. filing
d. balancing

10. When sharpening tools with a grinder, the tool rest should be:

a. removed.
b. placed at a 90 degree angle to the stone.
c. placed to support the tool.
d. pushed down out of the way.

11. Which of the following is not a type of chuck for a portable electric drill?

a. keyless, self tightening
b. hex-key
c. hand tightened
d. oct-key

12. Split wooden handles are best repaired with:

a. nails.
b. screws.
c. glue.
d. tape.

13. Driving tool handles are held in place by:

a. bolts.
b. nails.
c. screws.
d. wedges.

14. Rust may be prevented from forming on metal surfaces by applying:

a. oil.
b. water.
c. saddle soap.
d. any of these.

15. When standard screwdrivers have rounded tips they:

a. work better.
b. need replacing.
c. slip out of screw slots.
d. should be heated and reshaped.

16. Tools are generally classified according to:

a. use.
b. color.
c. construction.
d. origin.

Electric Motors

17. Which of the following motors use brushes to transmit power to the rotor?

a. Universal
b. Capacitor start induction run
c. Split capacitor
d. Shaded pole

18. When disassembling a motor, which of the following should be done first?

a. Mark the end bells of the motor to insure they get placed back the same
b. Remove all through bolts
c. Pull the rotor from the stator
d. Blow dirt out of housing

19. Ambient air temp refers to which of the following?

a. The temperature of the medium which surrounds the motor.
b. The temperature of the air inside the housing.
c. The temperature at which the motor will fail.
d. The temperature required for bi-metallic strip to separate from each other.

20. Locked Rotor refers to which of the following?

a. The lock on the rotor used when disassembling the motor.
b. Holding the rotor still when the motor is energized.
c. When a bearing seizes up from lack of lubrication.
d. None of the above

21. Torque refers to which of the following?

a. A force acting perpendicular to a point and causing a twisting force.
b. The ability to do a task in a certain time.
c. A force acting parallel on a point.
d. Being really upset?

22. Split phase motor a feature which of the following?

a. HP range from 1/6 to 3/4 HP.
b. Medium load starting.
c. Reversible.
d. All the above

23. Shaded pole motors have which features?

a. Med HP range 1 to 10 HP.
b. Light load starting.
c. Starting Current high.
d. Reversible.

24. Permanent split capacitor motors have which features?

a. Low HP range 1/20 to 1 HP.
b. Reversible
c. Hard Load starting.
d. A and B are correct.
 

25. The stationary electromagnet in an electric motor is called a:

a.  Stator.
b.  Rotor.
c.  Armature.
d.  None the above

26.  Most motors operating on AC current use a rotor design that is commonly referred to:

a.  squirrel cage rotor.
b.  box fan rotor.
c.  minimum angle rotor.
d.  both a and c.

27. A split phase motor operating at 1750 rpm will have running poles?

a.  4
b.  3
c.  2
d.  1

28. A permanent split capacitor motor is best used on a fan:

a.  small air conditioner
b.  air compressor
c.  electric garage door opener
d.  both a & c are correct.

29. Repulsion start induction run motors wound have a rotor , commutator, and:

a. brushes.
b. accumulator.
c. capacitor.
d. both a and c.

30. Which of the following is not a type of 3 phase motors?

a. delta
b. sigma
c. wye
d. none of the above

31. The type of capacitor used for a capacitor start electric motor is:

a. oil filled.
b. electrolytic.
c. variable.
d. disk type.

32. Which type of motor does not require starting windings?

a. single-phase motor
b. three-phase motor
c. double-phase motor
d. none of the above

33. In a three-phase motor, than for a single-phase motor of the same size.

a. amperage rating is less and wire size smaller
b. amperage rating is less and wire size larger
c. amperage rating is higher and wire size smaller
d. amperage rating is higher and wire size larger

34. Sealed ball bearings on an electric motor should be:

a. greased once a month.
b. greased every other month.
c. cannot be greased.
d. greased once a year.

Machinery

35. Which is not a major factor affecting optimum seeding rates of planters?

a.  moisture available
b.  germination
c.  row spacing
d.  soil type

36. A planter should:

a.  have the same seeding rates, no matter what is planted.
b.  adjusted to 1-2 inches for fast emergence of corn.
c.  never be pulled faster than 6 MPH.
d.  only be adjusted once while planting a particular crop

37. Proper winter storage for a planter is:

a.  coat all polished areas with a thin coat of grease to prevent rusting.
b.  leave hopper 1/4 filled with seed and any insecticide in the hoppers to prevent rusting.
c.  the planter should be left outside during off season times.
d.  unlatch hoppers from the planter frame and turn upside down for storage.

38. Which of the following tillage implements is not a primary tillage tool?

a.  moldboard plow
b.  field cultivator
c.  chisel plow
d.  subsoiler (v-ripper)

39. Which type of tillage implement provides the most economical way to cultivate plants that are 2 inches tall or shorter?

a.  rotary hoe
b.  rowcrop cultivator
c.  both A & B operate at the same efficiency
d.  none of the above

40. Which of the following is not a type of harrow?

a. disk-tooth
b.  roller
c.  tine-tooth
d.  spike-tooth

41. Penetration of a disk into the ground depends on:

a.  hitch angle.
b.  soil type.
c.  soil moisture.
d.  all of the above.

42. Which of the following is not considered a secondary tillage implement?

a.  disk plow
b.  field cultivator
c.  disk harrow
d.  rotary hoe

43. A properly ballasted tractor for tillage will provide:

a.  reduced soil compaction.
b.  an improved ride.
c.  reduced tire wear.
d.  all of the above.

44. When adjusting most tillage implements with a 3-point hitch attachment, one must ensure that:

a.  the implement is level and at working position.
b.  adjustments are made with the implement in the raised position.
c.  adjustments are made with the top link detached.
d.  the tractor is properly ballasted.

45. The machine horsepower requirement:

a. can exceed the power supply available.
b. should not exceed the power supply available.

46. Penetration of a shovel on a row-crop cultivator is determined by:

a. speed of travel.
b. degree of pitch of the shovel.
c. 3-point arms.
d. hydraulic cylinder.

47. The outer end of a mower cutter bar should lead or be set ahead of the inner end of the cutter bar:

a. ¼ inch for each foot of length.
b. ½ inch for each foot of length.
c. there should be no lead.
d. none of the above.

48. The spray pattern of a field sprayer is best adjusted by:

a. increasing pressure.
b. decreasing pressure.
c. using nozzle tips with different orifices.
d. changing boom length.

49. The closer the boom of the sprayer is to the ground, fewer opportunities exist for:

a. controlling weeds.
b. killing weeds.
c. missing the target.
d. wind to drift the chemical.

50. A baler operator notices that the large round bale is lop-sided. The source of the problem is a/an:

a. faulty monitor.
b. twine arm is not wrapping the bale properly.
c. operator failed to "weave" as he was baling.
d. none of the above .

Tractor Power
 

51. Which of grade number of fuel performs best during extremely cold weather?

a.  1-D
b.  2-D
c.  3-D
d.  each (1-D, 2-D, or 3-D) performs equally well during cold weather.

52. The fuel characteristics "cetane number" is used as the ignition indicator for:

a.  gasoline.
b.  methane.
c. diesel fuel.
d.  acetylene.

53. The proper ballasting distribution for a MFWD tractor is :

a.  40% rear, 60% front.
b.  50% front, 50% rear.
c.  30% front, 70% rear.
d.  40% front, 60% rear.

54. A hydrometer is used to test:

a.  hydraulic oil pressure.
b.  specific gravity of a battery.
c.  the level of refrigerant in the air conditioning system.
d.  water concentration in windshield washer solution.

55. After checking the hydraulic oil in your tractor, you notice that the oil has a milky white color. What is the problem?

a.  Nothing, this is normal.
b.  The oil has chalk in it to show up better on the dipstick.
c.  The oil has milk mixed with the oil.
d.  The oil has water mixed with the oil.

56. For most diesel engines, a common compression ratio is:

a.  16 to 1.
b.  25 to 1.
c.    8 to 1.
d.  11 to 1.

57. The function of the in-line diesel fuel injection pump is to:

a.  atomize and spray fuel into the cylinder.
b.  put the fuel under extremely high pressure.
c.  serve as a radiator to cool the diesel fuel.
d.  govern the amount of fuel delivered to the engine.

58. Which of the following is a component of an ignition primary circuit?

a.  distributor cap
b.  condenser
c.  distributor rotor
d.  spark plug

59. One horsepower is equal to:

a.  550 feet/lb/minute.
b. 33,000 feet/lb/second.
c. 33,000 feet/lb/minute.
d. 550 feet/lb/second.

60. When boosting a "down" battery one should take care to connect the cables from the battery charger in:

a.  parallel.
b.  tandem.
c.  series.
d.  series-parallel.

61. In a 4-stroke diesel engine the camshaft rotates____?

a.  at half the speed of the crankshaft
b.  twice the speed of the crankshaft
c.  Same speed as the crankshaft
d.  None of the above

62. A piston type hydraulic pump is classified as

a. closed center
b.  open center
c.  split sides
d. none of the above

63. A cylinder liner that serves as the entire cylinder wall and comes into direct contact with the coolant is a:

a. "dry" type sleeve
b. "wet" type sleeve
c. wet/dry sleeve
d. oil sleeve

64. The principle parts of the valve system are the valves, camshaft, tappets, push rods, and ___________.

a. manifold
b. coil
c. rocker arm(s)
d. fan

65. The center of pull for a tractor is always:

a. at the drawbar.
b. midway between the rear wheels.
c. 1 foot behind the PTO.
d. none of the above.

66. Maximum speed for a rear tractor tire should not exceed?

a. 25 mph
b. 35 mph
c. 15 mph
d. 40 mph

67. A battery ignition system has 2 electrical circuits, they are?

a. 12 volt and 24 volt
b.  positive and negative
c.  primary and secondary
d.  none of the above

Concrete and Plumbing

68.  Coarse aggregate in concrete is defined as particles?

a. ¼ inch and less in diameter
b. ¼ inch to 3/4 inch in diameter
c. 3/4 inch and above in diameter
d. both b and c are correct

69.  Which method(s) is most commonly used to specify a water-cement ratio?

a. Gallons/sack
b.  Sacks/cubic yard
c.  Pounds/pounds
d.  Both a and c are correct

70.  What is the recommended overlap distance when splicing wire fabric in concrete?

a. butt the two edges together
b. ½ of one full stay spacing
c.  one full stay spacing
d.  one full stay spacing plus 2 inches.

71.  The overlap distance for deformed reinforcing bars (r-bar) should always be at least the bar diameter with a minimum overlap of 12 inches.

a. 12 times
b. 18 times
c. 24 times
d. 30 times

72. When does concrete reach its full strength? Assume placing is complete and the temperature is at or above 70 degrees Fahrenheit.

a. 7 days after placing
b. 14 days after placing
c. 21 days after placing
d. 28 days after placing

73.  What is the general length of time required to cure concrete when temperature is above 70 degrees Fahrenheit?

a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

74. Which of the following is not an ingredient in standard Portland cement?

a. Calcium
b. Chloride
c. Iron
d. Silicon

75.  What type of finish should be applied to a floor surface used for dairy cattle?

a. Broom finish
b. Wood float finish
c. Steel trowel
d. No finish work is required

76. What is the diameter of NO. 3 reinforcing bar?

a. 1/4 inch
b. 3/8 inch
c. 1/2 inch
d. 5/8 inch

77. What type of value is used when the pipe needs to be fully open or fully shut?

a. check valve
b. gate valve
c. stop and waste valve
d. globe valve

78.  What type of value controls and varies the rate of flow?

a. globe value
b. gate value
c. check value
d. angle value

79.  Which value is automatic and allows fluid to flow in only one direction?

a. stop and waste value
b. angle value
c. check value
d. gate value

80. How is the size of steel pipe used for plumbing measured?

a. nominal outside diameter
b. nominal inside diameter
c. average the two diameters
d. either one works

81. Reinforcement is placed in concrete to increase:

a. compressive strength.
b. tensile strength.
c. overall strength.
d. dynamics strength.

82. Which additive can be used to speed up or reduce setting time?

a. calcium chloride
b. air entraining agent
c. plasticizer
d. none of the above

83. Why are air-entraining admixtures added to concrete either before or directly after the concrete has been placed?

a. improves freezing and thawing resistance
b. prevents damages done by various deicing chemicals
c. increases tensile strength
d. both a and b are correct

84. Which one of the following pipes is NOT used for underground applications such as irrigation or water systems?

a. Copper
b. Polyethylene(PE)
c. Polyvinyl chloride(PVC)
d. None the above are used for underground applications.

85.  What is the correct tool to use when connecting steel and wrought iron pipe together?

a. pipe wrenches
b. tongue and groove pliers
c. vise grips
d. all of the above will work

86.  The efficiency of the flow of water through pipes is affected by

a. friction
b. the severity of turns in the pipe
c. the distance the water must be elevated
d. all of the above

Oxy-Acetylene Welding

87. Acetylene gas can be safely conducted through pipe:

a. rigid copper
b. black
c. plastic (PVC)
d. flexible rubber

88. Brazing flux can be purchased in which of the following forms:

a. liquid.
b. powered.
c. solid.
d. all of the above are forms of brazing flux.

89. When oxy-acetylene welding with an equal pressure blowpipe, which of the following best describes oxygen and acetylene pressure settings?

a.  oxygen pressures are twice that of acetylene working pressures
b.  oxygen and acetylene working pressures are equal.
c.  acetylene pressure is twice that of the oxygen working pressure.
d.  acetylene pressure is four times less than the oxygen working pressure.

90. Which of the following cylinders uses a fusible safety plug?

a.  acetylene
b.  oxygen
c.  both oxygen and acetylene
d.  methane

91. What type of flame possesses an acetylene feather?

a.  carburizing
b.  neutral
c.  oxidizing
d.  none of the above

92. Which of the following can not be adjusted to control heat while oxy-acetylene cutting?

a.  speed of travel
b.  gas pressure
c.  distance from metal
d.  angle from metal

93. Tack welding is critical to control distortion when oxy-acetylene welding. Which of the following would be a good technique to reduce distortion?

a.  tack weld every 12".
b.  tack weld every 6".
c.  "butt" the metal together as close as possible.
d.  grinding the "scale" off the metal prior to welding.

94. When oxy-acetylene welding, the proper type of flame is determined by:

a.  the molten metal and type of fuel.
b.  the effect of oxygen and acetylene on grain boundaries of non-ferrous iron oxides.
c.  the chemical composition of the welding rod.
d.  the type of base and filler metals involved and the thickness of the base metal.

95. The recommended technique to use when brazing mild steel that is 1/16" thick is the:

a. forehand method.
b. backhand method.
c. lefthand method.
d. righthand method.

96. When a backfire occurs during oxy-acetylene welding, it is most likely the result of:

a. fueling with equal pressures.
b. the tip nearly touching the work.
c. Holding the tip ½ " from the work.
d. Holding the tip 3/8" from the work.

97. The preferred flame type to use when using the oxy-acetylene welder to braze weld cast iron is:

a. oxidizing.
b. neutral.
c. carburizing.
d. oxy-neutralizing.

98. A loud snap or pop is heard when oxy-acetylene welding. This is called a:

a.  backfire.
b.  reverse fire.
c.  flashback.
d.  popping off.

99. A type of material that is not found in an acetylene cylinder to help keep the acetylene under pressure is:

a.  Balsa wood fibers.
b.  Long asbestos fibers.
c.  Fine asbestos fibers.
d.  Pinewood fibers.

100.  Oxygen fittings on oxy-acetylene equipment have:

a. NC threads.
b. Left hand threads.
c. NF threads.
d. Right hand threads.